Question 1: If rising oil and gas prices are examples of cost-push inflation, why aren’t rapidy escalating land prices considered to be even moreso?

Question 2: Why are rising wages considered to be another example of cost-push inflation when rising profits aren’t – because Henry George demonstrated that wages and profits actually rise and fall together; inversely to land prices?

Question 3: The invisible hand will meet demand-pull inflation, but why do we simply ignore that (a) land prices–land having no cost of production–and (b) the deadweight losses generated by the taxing of labour and capital–passed on into the price of goods and services–are responsible for cost-push inflation? Neither are included in the Consumer Price Index.

Question 4: Maybe we need fresh thinking on the main causes of cost-push inflation?